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Validate your CAS-004 Exam Preparation with CAS-004 Practice Test (Online & Offline) [Q234-Q251]

Validate your CAS-004 Exam Preparation with CAS-004 Practice Test (Online & Offline)

Get all the Information About CompTIA CAS-004 Exam 2024 Practice Test Questions

NEW QUESTION 234
An organization is facing budget constraints The Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to add a new marketing platform but the organization does not have the resources to obtain separate servers to run the new platform.
The CTO recommends running the new marketing platform on a virtualized video-conferencing server because video conferencing is rarely used.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) denies this request.
Which of the following BEST explains the reason why the CISO has not approved the request?

Privilege escalation attacks

Performance and availability

Weak DAR encryption

Disparate security requirements

NEW QUESTION 235
To save time, a company that is developing a new VPN solution has decided to use the OpenSSL library within Its proprietary software. Which of the following should the company consider to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL?

Include stable, long-term releases of third-party libraries instead of using newer versions.

Ensure the third-party library implements the TLS and disable weak ciphers.

Compile third-party libraries into the main code statically instead of using dynamic loading.

Implement an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing.

NEW QUESTION 236
A user from the sales department opened a suspicious file attachment. The sales department then contacted the SOC to investigate a number of unresponsive systems, and the team successfully identified the file and the origin of the attack.
Which of the following is t he NEXT step of the incident response plan?

Remediation

Containment

Response

Recovery

NEW QUESTION 237
A company based in the United States holds insurance details of EU citizens.
Which of the following must be adhered to when processing EU citizens’ personal, private, and confidential data?

The principle of lawful, fair, and transparent processing

The right to be forgotten principle of personal data erasure requests

The non-repudiation and deniability principle

The principle of encryption, obfuscation, and data masking

NEW QUESTION 238
A home automation company just purchased and installed tools for its SOC to enable incident identification and response on software the company develops. The company would like to prioritize defenses against the following attack scenarios:
Unauthorized insertions into application development environments
Authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations Which of the following actions will enable the data feeds needed to detect these types of attacks on development environments? (Choose two.)

Perform static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports.

Implement an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations.

Monitor dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries.

Install an IDS on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services.

Model user behavior and monitor for deviations from normal.

Continuously monitor code commits to repositories and generate summary logs.

Explanation
Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal and continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs are actions that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal is a technique that uses baselines, analytics, machine learning, or other methods to establish normal patterns of user activity and identify anomalies or outliers that could indicate malicious or suspicious behavior. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal can help detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments, as it can alert on unusual or unauthorized access attempts, commands, actions, or transactions by users. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs is a technique that uses tools, scripts, automation, or other methods to track and record changes made to code repositories by developers, testers, reviewers, or other parties involved in the software development process. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs can help detect authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, as it can audit and verify the source, time, reason, and impact of code changes made by authorized users. Performing static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect vulnerabilities, errors, bugs, or quality issues in committed code. Implementing an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to protect XML-based web services from threats or attacks by validating XML messages against predefined policies. Monitoring dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to identify outdated or vulnerable third-party libraries used in software development projects. Installing an IDS (intrusion detection system) on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes

NEW QUESTION 239
A product development team has submitted code snippets for review prior to release.
INSTRUCTIONS
Analyze the code snippets, and then select one vulnerability, and one fix for each code snippet.
Code Snippet 1

Code Snippet 2

Vulnerability 1:
SQL injection
Cross-site request forgery
Server-side request forgery
Indirect object reference
Cross-site scripting
Fix 1:
Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Perform output encoding of queryResponse,
Ensure usex:ia belongs to logged-in user.
Inspect URLS and disallow arbitrary requests.
Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Vulnerability 2
1) Denial of service
2) Command injection
3) SQL injection
4) Authorization bypass
5) Credentials passed via GET
Fix 2
A) Implement prepared statements and bind
variables.
B) Remove the serve_forever instruction.
C) Prevent the “authenticated” value from being overridden by a GET parameter.
D) HTTP POST should be used for sensitive parameters.
E) Perform input sanitization of the userid field.

NEW QUESTION 240
Which of the following BEST sets expectation between the security team and business units within an organization?

Risk assessment

Memorandum of understanding

Business impact analysis

Business partnership agreement

Services level agreement

NEW QUESTION 241
A security engineer is troubleshooting an issue in which an employee is getting an IP address in the range on the wired network. The engineer plus another PC into the same port, and that PC gets an IP address in the correct range. The engineer then puts the employee’ PC on the wireless network and finds the PC still not get an IP address in the proper range. The PC is up to date on all software and antivirus definitions, and the IP address is not an APIPA address. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?

The company is using 802.1x for VLAN assignment, and the user or computer is in the wrong group.

The DHCP server has a reservation for the PC’s MAC address for the wired interface.

The WiFi network is using WPA2 Enterprise, and the computer certificate has the wrong IP address in the SAN field.

The DHCP server is unavailable, so no IP address is being sent back to the PC.

NEW QUESTION 242
Due to adverse events, a medium-sized corporation suffered a major operational disruption that caused its servers to crash and experience a major power outage. Which of the following should be created to prevent this type of issue in the future?

SLA

BIA

BCM

BCP

RTO

NEW QUESTION 243
A customer reports being unable to connect to a website at www.test.com to consume services. The customer notices the web application has the following published cipher suite:

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the customer’s inability to connect?

Weak ciphers are being used.

The public key should be using ECDSA.

The default should be on port 80.

The server name should be test.com.

NEW QUESTION 244
Device event logs sources from MDM software as follows:

Which of the following security concerns and response actions would BEST address the risks posed by the device in the logs?

Malicious installation of an application; change the MDM configuration to remove application ID 1220.

Resource leak; recover the device for analysis and clean up the local storage.

Impossible travel; disable the device’s account and access while investigating.

Falsified status reporting; remotely wipe the device.

NEW QUESTION 245
An organization’s senior security architect would like to develop cyberdefensive strategies based on standardized adversary techniques, tactics, and procedures commonly observed. Which of the following would BEST support this objective?

OSINT analysis

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis

MITRE ATT&CK

Deepfake generation

Closed-source intelligence reporting

NEW QUESTION 246
A security engineer needs to select the architecture for a cloud database that will protect an organization’s sensitive dat a. The engineer has a choice between a single-tenant or a multitenant database architecture offered by a cloud vendor. Which of the following best describes the security benefits of the single-tenant option? (Select two).

Most cost-effective

Ease of backup and restoration

High degree of privacy

Low resilience to side-channel attacks

Full control and ability to customize

Increased geographic diversity

NEW QUESTION 247
A city government’s IT director was notified by the city council that the following cybersecurity requirements must be met to be awarded a large federal grant:
– Logs for all critical devices must be retained for 365 days to enable monitoring and threat hunting.
– All privileged user access must be tightly controlled and tracked to
mitigate compromised accounts.
– Ransomware threats and zero-day vulnerabilities must be quickly
identified.
Which of the following technologies would BEST satisfy these requirements? (Choose three.)

Endpoint protection

Log aggregator

Zero trust network access

PAM

Cloud sandbox

SIEM

NGFW

NEW QUESTION 248
A developer implement the following code snippet.

Which of the following vulnerabilities does the code snippet resolve?

SQL inject

Buffer overflow

Missing session limit

Information leakage

NEW QUESTION 249
A company based in the United States holds insurance details of EU citizens. Which of the following must be adhered to when processing EU citizens’ personal, private, and confidential data?

The principle of lawful, fair, and transparent processing

The right to be forgotten principle of personal data erasure requests

The non-repudiation and deniability principle

The principle of encryption, obfuscation, and data masking

NEW QUESTION 250
A threat hunting team receives a report about possible APT activity in the network.
Which of the following threat management frameworks should the team implement?

NIST SP 800-53

MITRE ATT&CK

The Cyber Kill Chain

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis

NEW QUESTION 251
A recent data breach revealed that a company has a number of files containing customer data across its storage environment. These files are individualized for each employee and are used in tracking various customer orders, inquiries, and issues. The files are not encrypted and can be accessed by anyone. The senior management team would like to address these issues without interrupting existing processes.
Which of the following should a security architect recommend?

A DLP program to identify which files have customer data and delete them

An ERP program to identify which processes need to be tracked

A CMDB to report on systems that are not configured to security baselines

A CRM application to consolidate the data and provision access based on the process and need

CompTIA CAS-004 (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)) exam is an advanced-level certification designed for experienced IT professionals who want to enhance their skills and knowledge in the field of cybersecurity. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification validates the skills required to conceptualize, design, and engineer secure solutions across complex enterprise environments.

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